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Mary the Mother of Jesus |
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(1) What Scripture teaches |
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Mary was a highly favoured woman, but nevertheless a member of Adam's fallen race the same as the rest of us. She was therefore a failing woman and made mistakes such as when she spoke of Joseph as being the father of Jesus (Luke 2:48). Though she was the mother of Jesus as is stated a good many times in Scripture (e.g. John 19:25; Acts 1:14), she is nowhere spoken of as being the mother of God. This would be impossible, because God existed before Mary and was her maker. When begetting Jesus she was still a virgin and this is stated clearly by Matthew in his quotation from Isaiah (Matthew 1:23) and by Luke who uses the word virgin twice in referring to Mary (Luke 1:27). The Greek word Parthenos appears fourteen times in the New Testament and is always translated virgin in the A.V. (see Youngs concordance). Apart from the specific use of the word virgin in relation to Mary the surrounding narrative in both Matthew and Luke shows beyond question that both Gospel writers held that Christ was born of a virgin. This fact is generally accepted by orthodox Christendom and, incidentally, by Muslims also. |
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Jews and other sceptical persons do not accept the virgin birth of Christ. However, there are those who would add to the teaching of the virgin birth and maintain that Mary remained a virgin after the birth of Christ contrary to the plain teaching of Scripture. Scripture says: "Every word of God is pure... Add thou not unto his words, lest he reprove thee, and thou be found a liar" (Proverbs 30:5/6). The Church of Rome has added to the teaching of Scripture the perpetual virginity of Mary and are consequently in error. Such teaching can lead to sceptics pointing the finger at the Church of Rome (Atheists and the like often direct their fire at the superstitions of the Church of Rome - I have heard them doing it on tower hill in London in days gone by) and scoffing at their notions, but in rejecting their unscriptural teaching they reject what the Gospel writers teach as well ! Effectively they are throwing out the baby with the bath water ! |
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The idea that Mary was exempt from the pain of childbirth is a Romish notion not found in Scripture. Where Scripture is silent we would do well to be (see the quotation from Proverbs above). Surely, we would not wish to be found liars. Similarly Romish statements about the immaculate conception of Mary, her bodily assumption into heaven and perpetual virginity have no real foundation in Scripture and involve adding to the word of God. As to the last matter, the perpetual virginity of Mary, it is not only that Scripture says nothing about Mary being always a virgin, but it positively teaches that she was not ! |
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Some things in Scripture are hard to be understood (2 Peter 3:16) Even the meaning of the first two verses of Genesis 1 are the subject of controversy, and that even among those who are not trying to accommodate them to the latest in scientific thought. This may be because we are dealing with something which is barely within human comprehension. However, other things are perfectly clear in Scripture. One of these is the fact that though Mary was a virgin when she gave birth to Jesus she did not continue to be so afterwards. Scripture says of Joseph that he "knew her not until she had brought forth her firstborn son" (Matthew 1:25). "Knew her" is the expression usually used in Scripture for what we would probably speak of as sexual intercourse - see for example Genesis 4:1 and 25. Apart from this it is to be noted that Jesus is spoken of as being Mary's firstborn son (Matthew 1:25: Luke 2:7), implying that others followed. Jesus is never said to be Mary's only son. Apart from the specific statements of Scripture which will be sufficient for all who own its authority, it may be noted that Joseph was told by the angel that appeared to him in a dream to take to him his wife, Mary. Taking his wife would involve having normal marital relations with her as is stated in Genesis 2:24. In any case would anyone seriously think that Joseph would have lived with Mary without having sexual intercourse with her ? To suggest that he did not would imply that there was something wrong with normal marital relations though they are an ordinance of God as the passage just quoted from Genesis shows. Marriage is an honourable estate (Hebrews 13:4). It is a natural ordinance; not, as some would say, a holy one. It is a relationship for this life and ends when we die (Matthew 22:23-33; Romans 7:1-3), though spiritual links forged while in it will go through, as will the spiritual links between Christ and his disciples (Matthew 26:29). |
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